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if the unjust treatment of men indeed solely derives from the unjust treatment of women, your conclusion seems to be correct: feminism, by extension, then would be the fight for gender equality.

but i'm not yet convinced of that assumption, because you haven't given me more than a mere statement so far. can you go into detail? elaborate your reasoning? why do you think men's oppression will subside with increasing women's rights?

i'd like to have more input before i make a decision. thanks.

(also, i don't know how to "address" someone on soup .. hm, does writing @paket suffice? edit: kinda looks like it)

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